88 wrote:Your math and logic is all fucked up, dog.
Could be. And it probably won’t be the last time, either, 8’s. But help me understand:
1) So Justice argued that the mandate was a tax, and the Supremes as a body slapped them down, because the court cannot hear legal challenges on a tax until it’s been paid. Well-and-good.
2) Next, Justice argued the mandate was a penalty, and that Congress has the authority to level such a penalty per the Commerce Clause. That take also failed, 5-4. The Libs were crushed, and posted a “Majority Dissent” to that effect. I believe I posted something similar to that affect a bit earlier.
3) Now, here’s where things get a bit curious. So Justice – once again - argues the mandate was a tax, not a penalty, and that Congress has the authority to impose such a tax under its constitutional powers, and Roberts agreed with the Libs.
:?
Now wait a minute.
The Supremes had already ruled unanimously that they couldn’t hear a case on taxation until the tax had actually been paid. But Point 3 of your take presents the same argument, and all-of-a-sudden, it was ruled that Congress did, and I quote, have “
the authority to impose the ‘tax’ under its taxing power. Roberts agreed with the liberals on this one, and the argument prevailed 5-4 (Part III-C of Roberts' Opinion, which Ginsburg/Breyer/Sotomayor/Kagan joined).”
So if the Supremes couldn’t hear this case under Point 1, what changed to allow them to rule under Point 3? The argument was the same.
And MY logic is all fucked up?
My 1-8 take all along was based on the fact that Libs were ready to rock on Point 2 of your post. When Roberts decided that the mandate was actually a
tax under Congressional powers, the Libs collectively said, “well, duh”, and signed on. Trouble is, the damn Libs had already decided the ACA was
already constitutional under the Commerce Clause. The Conservatives were correct when they suggested that “the Court today decides to save a statute Congress did not write.”
I suppose I’m inviting a return trip to the woodshed, but please explain to me how the Supremes could rule upon a tax that they were supposedly constitutionally prohibited to rule upon. TIA, Mang.