Mike the Lab Rat wrote:
You do realize, of course, that NONE of this answers the SPECIFIC request that I made to you - to explain, clearly, in plain English devoid of Scriptural "koans" and psychobabble ("read this and tell me what YOU think it means") what "fulfilling" means in regards to Mosaic Law.
This is funny.
You want me to reason with you about 'the law' and Jesus Christ, but you don't like for me to use Scripture in doing so? haha
Mike, it may work that way for you, but if you want to hear my replies you'll have to pardon me for telling you what the Bible says about it.
This
could be very long, so I'll condense things as best I can.
Bear with me.
'The law' is the entirety of O.T. Scripture.
Jesus said, Matthew 5:17, that He did not come to destroy the law ...
OR THE PROPHETS.
People of your ilk dismiss the PROPHETS part and just like to focus attention to His speaking of 'the law' only.
Jesus said (same verse) that He came to fulfill the law .... AND the prophets.
Ok .....
We agree (I think) that Jesus has in fact fulfilled what was spoken by the prophets.
He fulfilled the prophets by bringing their words to their intended escatological climax in himself.
Right?
When Christ resurrected he met two disciples on the road to Emmaus, and He told them that all that happened in Jerusalem was spoken of by the prophets.
Luke 24:27
And beginning at Moses and all the prophets, he expounded unto them in all the scriptures the things concerning himself.
Then He also appeared to a group of apostles and disciples in Jerusalem and said to them ...
Luke 24:44
These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.
Jesus said here that He fulfilled
ALL THREE aspects of the Old Testament -- the law of Moses, the prophets, and the psalms.
Hence the meaning of 'the law' that you want to assign to it is incorrect.
'The law and the prophets' that Jesus speaks of is the same thing as ALL THE SCRIPTURES.
It is that He has fulfilled all the Scriptures.
In verse 18 of Matthew Jesus said that nothing will pass from the law until all is accomplished.
What does He mean by 'the law' ... ?
He's NOT speaking of Mosaic law code, because verse 18 is building off of what He said in verse 17, and there would have been NO REASON for Him to say diddly squat about the ... THE PROPHETS, as he did.
'The law' represents Old Testament writings.
And all of THAT is what He has fulfilled and not destroyed.
Look at John 10:34, Jesus speaking to the Jews says .....
John 10:34
Is it not written in your LAW, I said, Ye are gods?
The same thing happens in John 12:34 and John 15:25 -- where the ENTIRETY OF SCRIPTURE is the law.
John 12:34
The people answered him, We have heard out of the law that Christ abideth for ever: and how sayest thou, The Son of man must be lifted up? who is this Son of man?
John 15:25, Jesus says ...
But this cometh to pass, that the word might be fulfilled that is written in their law, They hated me without a cause.
Again, it is a certainty that THE LAW is referring to the entirety of Scripture, and THAT is what Jesus Christ has fulfilled.
Now I know you are screaming because in Matthew 5 Jesus also goes on to tell about not breaking commandments, etc ....
Look at verse 20 of Matthew 5.
Jesus said that unless a person's righteousness exceed that of the scribes and pharisees they shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven.
Geez, good freaking luck, man.
Jesus came and died a horrific sacrificial death for us ..... so that we could then work our @ss off trying to follow the law to an extent greater than the pharisees in HOPE that it will be good enough for us to enter into the Kingdom of Heaven?
It's frickin' PREPOSTEROUS, dude.
It's a joke.
Get a grip.
NOBDODY is going to enter into the Kingdom of Heaven?
Is that it?
Is the the message Jesus is giving?
LMAO
Of course not, silly.
A person's 'righteousness' in the eyes of God is assumed by believing in HIM, Who fulfilled the law and the prophets -- or ... all Scripture.
I previously attempted to demonstrate that to you by having you look at the transfiguration incident in Matthew 17.
Christ came and redefined the letter of the law into it's spiritual intent.
Did Jesus's death and resurrection make the OT laws of Moses et al. null and void (and thus explaining why we can eat pork, run around uncircumcised, etc.) OR do the rules still apply, thereby requiring us to still follow Mosaic Laws.
What do you think?
Do you follow 'the 'law' somehow?
Go for it, if you think you need to.
It's not necessary.
Much/most of 'the law' is good and beneficial, but we are not bound by it.
We
ought to be bound to Christ, for He is the vine and we are the branches.
Apart from HIM, we can do nothing.
Saul was KING PHARISEE.
HIGHLY schooled, a VERY diligent follower of the law, and a vicious Christian hater.
Suddenly, his character did an AMAZING 180.
Paul became a devoted follower of Christ, speaking only of Christ.
And he became the very greatest evangelist the world has ever seen.
Humble and meek of heart.
And he died a martyr's death for his trust in the risen Christ.
Poo poo that away all you like.